Cultural Bias

April 21, 2006

I came across the following post (only partially quoted here) a few months ago.

For some reason, Proverbs 31 has been on my mind a lot this January. I think it’s a really important passage for women to study, and I know a lot f women probably feel that it’s overquoted, but I think it’s definitely overquoted for a reason.
These are just a few of my notes on the verses.

“The heart of her husband trusts in her, and he will have no lack of gain. She does him good and not evil all the days of her life. She looks for wool and flax and works with her hands in delight.” -Proverbs 31:11-13

I love this part of the chapter, because I want to be a trustworthy wife. I want my husband to have faith in me, to know that he can trust me to take care of the finances, a family business, or whatever he normally takes care of.

“She is like merchant ships; she brings her food from afar. She rises also while it is still night and gives food to her household and portions to her maidens. She considers a field and buys it; from her earnings she plants a vineyard.” -Proverbs 31:14-16

I love these verses because it is proof that a woman can work and still be a biblical wife. While the woman in these verses may not have a specific job outside the home, it is clear that she is involved in lots of work that is not “housework.” I love this: “She considers a field and buys it; from her earnings she plants a vineyard.” The verse doesn’t say that she asked her husband, and he bought the field for her. The verse says that she looked at a field, bought it herself, and then wisely used the earnings from it to plant a vineyard! What a wise woman! I think this goes back to earlier in the chapter, when it talks about a husband’s heart trusting in his wife. It is clear that this woman’s husband trusts her completely, even with his finances! She makes financial decisions for the family and the house, all to the benefit of her husband and home. What a wonderful woman! What a wonderful wife!

Now, I don’t mean to be picking on the author. She made some really good observations, as well, and what I am about to point out here is just a good example of something I’ve seen many others do, as well. But they are great examples of this, and it needs to be pointed out.

So what exactly is it that needs to be pointed out? The author of this post fell into the trap of interpreting the Bible in light of her own cultural bias. One of the first rules of proper exegesis (that is, correct Bible interpretation) is that the text cannot mean what it never meant. In other words, although we may find new applications of the same principles, the basic meaning of the text does not change with time or culture. What it meant when it was written is what it means now.

Another example is the pastor that we heard preaching about the church with “multiple pastoral staff” (as in, senior pastor, youth pastor, pastor of evangelism, etc.) at Antioch. His Scriptural “support” for this? Acts 13:1: “Now in the church at Antioch there were certain prophets and teachers: Barnabus, Simeon who was called Niger, Lucius of Cyrene, Manaen who had been brought up with Herod the tetrarch, and Saul.” Any real effort to understand this passage reveals that not only is this pastor’s interpretation bogus, the passage demonstrates a church culture that is radically different from our current church culture. Rather than remaking the Bible in the image of our culture, we should be remaking our culture in the image the Bible presents.

Going back to our original example, how did our well-meaning young lady interpret Proverbs 31 in light of her cultural bias? There are two key ways.

The first is in her response to the beginning of the passage: “I want my husband to … know that he can trust me to take care of … whatever he normally takes care of.” Already, I fear that our young lady has missed the entire point of the passage. :( A wife’s responsibility is not to take care of the things her husband normally takes care of, but to take care of the things which are hers to take care of. In our modern society, we expect women to be clones of men. We think we haven’t “proven ourselves” enough unless we are handling the provision-related aspects of the home, but this is a lie of the devil. The Bible tells us that we are to take care of the nurture-related aspects of the home. A family does not need two providers; it does not need two men. A family needs a man and a woman – a provider and a nurturer. A husband whose wife is busy trying to fill his shoes will be lacking in all of the things she was designed to do.

The second thing our young lady has done is to project our modern society onto the Proverbs 31 woman’s work. It is true that the Proverbs 31 woman was industrious, and even that she made some extra money for the home. It drives me crazy, however, to hear people use her as justification for women’s abandoning our God-given role for the workplace. Any familiarity with the traditional role of women easily puts these comments in their proper context. Remember the prairie women (which I’m sure you’ve seen in the movies) with their egg money? That’s the idea here. From the very beginning, godly women have been bringing in a little extra money from largely home-based pursuits – usually pursuits based in homemaking skills. These home-based entrepreneurial ventures are a far cry from holding an outside job, under the authority of another man (or woman). What did the Proverbs 31 woman do? She sewed. She apparently didn’t even carry her wares to market, as the verses tells us that she sold them to the merchants. She also bought a field. Perhaps this was real estate (which, again, would not have required her to be away from home regularly), or perhaps she simply bought it to plant her garden (vineyard) to supplement the food she was purchasing. Any way around it, these verses, read in the appropriate cultural context, do not provide support for the currently typical outside-the-home job.

Let us be careful to hear what the Bible says, and not just what we want it to say.

Original Languages

April 14, 2006

God, in His Sovereignty, inspired His Word at the times and places He did, for a reason.  I believe that (at least part of) that reason was so that it would  be written in the languages in which it was written.  Hebrew and Greek are much more precise languages than English.  (We say, “I love macaroni and cheese,” “I love my dog,” “I love my mother,” and, “I love my wife.”  Greek has different words for “love,” to reflect the definite differences here!)  Whiel the basic meaning of God’s Word is conveyed in whatever language it is translated into, there is a depth which the English alone simply cannot convey.  Here is an example.  (I think this is truly awesome!)

Psalm 96:11-13a says, “Let the heavens rejoice, and let the earth be glad; let the sea roar, and all its fullness; let the field be joyful, and all that is in it.  Then all the trees of the woods will rejoice before the LORD.”

(Or, for you KJV folks, “Let the heavens rejoice, and let the earth be glad let the sea roar, and the fullness thereof.  Let the field be joyful, and all that is therein: then shall all the trees of the wood rejoice before the LORD.”)

Hebrew, however, has many different words for joy/rejoicing/etc., which are much more specific in the manner of rejoicing.  Several of them are used in this passage.  If I plug in the more specific “definitions, it reads something like this:

“Let the heavens brighten up, and let the earth spin around; let the (roaring) sea tumble/crash, and all its fullness; let the field jump for joy, and all that is in it.  Then all the trees of the woods will creak before the LORD.”

Isn’t that awesome?!  All of creation rejoices in what God has created it to do, as a matter of course!

Bible Versions – KJV Only?

April 13, 2006

My husband and I believe that the Bible is the infallible, inerrant Word of God in the original manuscripts. (This, by the way, is the orthodox and truly “Fundamental” view. For more information, see my post about the Fundamentals.) For this reason, we believe it is important to read an accurate translation. Any good, formal equivalency (“word for word”) translation will retain the same doctrine, etc. as the originals, but the more accurate the translation, the easier it will be to study it without the use of extra “tools.”

The KJV is a decent translation, and I am not opposed to its use. I am, however, opposed to the dogmatic use of ONLY the KJV, for two major reasons. The first is that those in the KJV camp cast doubt on the Word of God in the minds of other Christians, and so cause them to stumble. (Unfortunately, most of their writings – especially those by Gail Riplinger – are based on incorrect information and/or faulty reasoning.) The second is that many of the words used in the KJV had different meanings then than they do now. This makes it easy to incorrectly interpret some passages, while believing one has understood them properly. (As an example, a prominent KJV-Only page laments the change of “study” and “science” in the KJV to “be diligent” and “knowledge” in the NKJV. Apparently this gentleman is not aware that, by definition, these are exactly the same! “Study” means “be diligent” and “science” means “knowledge.”)

Each translation should be evaluated on its own merit. Personally, I do not care for the NIV (a dynamic equivalency translation – that is, a “phrase by phrase,” or a sort of cross between a translation and a paraphrase). I do not care for this type of translation, and I believe the translators were not theologically well-grounded and made some errors based on carelessness. For example, the NIV calls Jesus God’s “one and only son,” rather than the “only begotten son” of God. This is doctrinally incorrect; we (the saved) are all sons of God.

I also do not care for the NASB. It is said to be a very accurate formal equivalency translation, but my husband and I have come across numerous “little issues” as we’ve read through it.

Many other translations, such as TLB are such dynamic-equivalency translations that I consider them to be paraphrases. Others, like the MSG, are very clearly paraphrases. These may have their place, as a sort of “Bible commentary,” but they are not Bibles. A paraphrase is not the Word of God; it is the words of the man who paraphrased it.

Some translations, such as the RSV and the ESV may be good; I really don’t know, as I’m not familiar with them.

Our household’s preference is the NKJV. In every single instance where the KJV-Only people have blasted the NKJV for differing from the KJV, the NKJV has been more precise or more correct than the KJV, according to the manuscripts from which the KJV is translated. Unfortunately, the KJV-Onlyists have blinded themselves to this excellent translation by their (usually) unthinking obsession with the perfection of the KJV.

When selecting a translation, there are several factors to consider. The first is translation method: is it formal equivalency or dynamic equivalency? Formal equivalency is, essentially, a word-for-word translation as much as is possible. A dynamic equivalency translation is more of a phrase-by-phrase translation, and the interpretation of the translators will more frequently creep into this type of translation, just because of the nature of it.

The second is textual basis. This is a rather complex issue and I’m not sure I have a strong personal belief here yet. The nutshell version is that there are basically two sets of manuscripts. There is a set of older manuscripts and there is a set of newer manuscripts. One “camp” says that the older ones are most reliable because they’re older and, thus, likely to be freer of copyists’ errors. The other camp says that the newer ones are more reliable, because they’re from the correct “line” of manuscripts, which was accepted by the early church as the “right” ones, and the older versions of these manuscripts are just gone from being used until they wore out. This group says that the oldest manuscripts we now have are still around because they weren’t used, as the church knew they were no good. Honestly, I really don’t know which is correct. I do know that my NKJV uses the same foundational text as the KJV.

The third factor to consider is the English style. In this category, I truly believe that the NKJV beats out the KJV by a long shot. The NKJV uses, overall, much more modern English, while in a few areas preserving a higher level of accuracy to the original. For example, the KJV’s “lieutenants” is corrected to “satraps.” “Satraps” may be a less common word, but it is far more accurate and, when difficult to understand, very obviously so, prompting one to look it up, rather than just ignorantly misunderstand.

The fourth factor is the overall purpose, etc. of the translation. For example, if it was written to remove all gender references, it’s pretty safe to assume it’s terrible. If it was written to provide an accurate translation in the current vernacular, it may well be good. (But you’ll have to consider all of the other factors, as well.)

I like to consider a few other particulars, too. Are words added for clarity/English flow italicized so it’s readily apparent that they’re added? Are pronouns referring to God capitalized? How do the translators handle God’s name? (Yes, He does have one!) When the original text is vague, do they leave it vague, allowing me to draw my own conclusions, or do they choose a single interpretation and impose it upon me? (For example, the “virgin” in 1 Cor. 7.)

My Notes on the Defined KJV back matter (Please note that I went through this for some friends. The NIV section was skipped because both they and I were already convinced that the NIV is a lousy translation, so that section was irrelevant to us. Also, they had an NIV, so they could check the section themselves.)
Cloud on New Age Bible Versions
White on New Age Bible Versions
more information about comparing translations

Questions for KJV-Onlyists

April 12, 2006

  • Was there no inspired Word of God prior to the AV of 1611?  If there was not, then God did not faithfully preserve His Word.  If there was, then how can the AV be the only ”real” Bible?
  • Are English-speakers the only ones with a “real” Bible?  If not, then there are multiple “real” Bibles – why not multiple “real” Bibles in English?
  • If the AV is consistent with the early church’s understanding of the text and canon, why does it include the Apocrypha?
  • If vernacular Bibles (such as the KJV) are inspired (rather than the originals being inspired, and vernacular Bibles being good or bad translations), then why can’t a Bible in the current vernacular be legitimate?
  • If the KJV is inspired, why did the translators clearly claim it was not perfect?
  • If the newer translations are problematic because of their supposed parallels with Jehovah’s Witness “Bibles,” how do you explain the routine KJV translation of, “our God and Savior Jesus Christ,” as “God and our Saviour Jesus Christ,” which implies two separate people and is employed by the Jehovah’s Witnesses? (See, for example, 2 Pe. 1:1.)
  • Why are all translations other than the KJV lumped together, rather than being evaluated on their own merits?  (In other words, why are the flaws of the NIV used to discredit all other translations, including those which are textually unrelated to it?)
  • Why is an entire doctrine based on the teachings of one woman?
  • Why should we trust Gail Riplinger’s scholarship?  Because of her degrees (in architecture/design-related fields)?  Because she’s taught ESL?  (So has my mother, who doesn’t speak any other languages except some rusty French and would tell you that she doesn’t know anything about textual criticism.)  Because she demonstrates a good grasp of logic?  (Take a quick look at the Bluedorns’ “Short List of Fallacies.”)  Because she’s proven herself to be psychologically sound?  (The letter “s” is Satanic?  Acrostic algebra?)  Because her facts and citations have been demonstrated to be consistently accurate? (See the next question.)
  • Have you verified the claims in the KJV-only literature?  (Check, first, that the factual claims are literally, factually correct.  If so, then check that the conclusions drawn from these facts are logically sound.)
  • On what biblical basis can the claim be supported that KJV is to be the standard, rather than the original manuscripts?  (Or, if the Textus Receptus is considered the standard, why are non-KJV translations which more accurately reflect the TR not considered at least legitimate, if not preferable?)

Absence

April 10, 2006

I apologize for the recent scarcity of posts. I have been having some health issues, and recently spent about a month at my mom’s so she could take care of me while I was low on energy. We think that food intolerances may be the problem. I would greatly appreciate your prayers that removing these foods would, indeed, resolve the problem. In the meantime, I hope to be able to get back into the swing of things here. :)